Infertility Quiz: Ace Your Exams
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A heterosexual, cis-gendered couple presents to the office for an infertility evaluation. They report no conception despite having regular intercourse 3 to 5 times weekly for the past 12 months. The woman is 34 years old, gravida 1, para 0, with regular menstrual cycles that come once every 28 to 29 days. She has no dysmenorrhea, heavy menstrual or intermenstrual bleeding. She had one prior spontaneous conception 14 years ago with a different partner that was electively terminated with a dilation and curettage. She has a history of normal cervical screening tests. She has no history of pelvic infections or intraabdominal surgeries. Her exam is unremarkable. Her partner is a 35-year-old man with no prior children, no significant medical history, and no history of genital infection, surgery, or trauma. Review of symptoms is significant for occasional dull, aching left-sided scrotal pain that improves with lying flat. Which of the following tests will most likely be abnormal and indicate the cause of infertility?
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