Maternal D alloimmunization (management) Quiz: Ace Your Exams
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A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 12 weeks estimated gestational age (EGA), presents for a routine prenatal appointment. She has no bleeding, cramping, or abnormal discharge. She had a prior vaginal birth at term, complicated by retained placenta and postpartum hemorrhage that required dilation and curettage and blood transfusion. She has no medical problems, and her only medication is a prenatal vitamin. Temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. On exam, the patient is well-appearing with no abdominal tenderness. Laboratory studies show that her blood type is A-negative with a positive antibody screen, while her partner is A-positive with a heterozygous genotype. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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