Testicular torsion (pediatrics) Quiz: Ace Your Exams
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic for evaluation of recurrent episodes of left testicular pain that have occurred several times over the past month. Each episode lasts for a few minutes and resolves spontaneously. During these episodes, the pain is sharp and localized to the left testicle. The pain during these episodes causes significant discomfort, leading to limitations in his daily activities. He denies trauma, fever, or urinary symptoms. He is sexually active with one female partner and uses protection inconsistently. Vital signs are within normal limits. Both testicles are non-tender and lie in a normal, vertical orientation. No swelling or discoloration is noted. The cremasteric reflex is present bilaterally. There is no urethral discharge. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
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