USMLE® Step 1 style questions USMLE
USMLE® Step 2 style questions USMLE
A 64-year-old man comes to the office for the evaluation of a mass on the right side of his groin. The patient first noted the mass after helping his daughter move to a new home. He reports sharp discomfort in the right groin worsens with walking and heavy lifting. Resting supine decreases the severity of the pain. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include atorvastatin and metformin. BMI is 37 kg/m2. Vitals are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a bulge in the right groin above the inguinal ligament which increases in size when the patient coughs. There is no overlying erythema or warmth. The patient is referred to a surgeon and scheduled for a laparoscopic repair.
Which of the following landmarks will help the surgeon to differentiate a direct versus an indirect inguinal hernia?
An inguinal hernia refers to the protrusion of an intra abdominal organ (usually a bowel loop) through a weak spot in the groin part of the abdominal wall. Common risk factors include a positive family history of hernias, advanced age, smoking, prior abdominal wall injury, and chronic constipation and cough.