Prelabor rupture of membranes Quiz: Ace Your Exams
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A 30-year-old primigravid woman at 33 weeks of estimated gestational age (EGA) presents 40 minutes after experiencing the loss of clear fluid from her vagina. She has no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or decreased fetal movement. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated, and she has no significant past medical history. Her only medication is a prenatal vitamin, and she has no allergies. Temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 114/70 mmHg. On examination, the abdomen is non-tender, there is an accumulation of straw-colored fluid in the vaginal vault, and the cervix is visually closed. A non-stress test shows a baseline fetal heart rate of 140 bpm, moderate variability, 2 accelerations, no decelerations, and no contractions. A limited obstetric ultrasound shows a viable fetus in the vertex presentation with a single deepest vertical pocket of 1.8 cm. The patient is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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